Im sure u guys get alot of questions on modes so i guess one more wont hurt.
I think i understand the theory behind the modes somewhat. I know for example playing a ii chord with the major scale gives u dorian and playing V7th chord with major scale is mixolydian mode. Every chord progression pretty much have modes written into them already. Say if the chords goes from Dmaj7 - Bm7 - Gmaj7 - A7 in the key of D maj, the modes would go from ionian - aeolian - lydian - mixolydian as the D maj scale is played.
Correct me if im wrong on this.
My question would be how come sometimes i listen to songs that seems to have a consistent "feel" through out? for example a mexican song seems to be playing in phrygian/aeolian mode all the way through. then what happen when the song goes into a major chord? wouldnt that change the mode to major? do u then have to play a different scale that somehow to manage to tie a major chord to the phrygian feel?
C#m - F#m - G# - A - G# with or without the E major scale playing sounds pretty phrygian already. so how does this particular chord progression have the phrygian feel written into it?
could someone enlighten me on this?