
Originally Posted by
Rajjpuut
Beginner's Inquiry:
Mary Had a Little Lamb in Phrygian Mode???!
They say there are no stupid questions . . . this could be the exception, but as someone just starting to understand music theory (which seems, at least to me, not to have very much theoretical underpinning, but rather a lot of PRACTICE at its core), I'm having trouble relating modes to what I actually hear.
Imagine we decided to take the prodigy Mozart's great creation "Mary Had a Little Lamb" (Edison's first recorded effort on the phonograph) and shifted an Ionan version of the ditty to Phrygian Mode . . .
How exactly would we do that?
raise it by a 3rd - keeping to the same diatonic scale.
IOW, if the melody is in G major, it starts on B (and ends on G). To put in phrygian mode, start it on D, ending on B, keeping to the same scale. This would put it in B phrygian.
You would need to start and end on a Bm chord too, otherwise it would just sound like a harmonisation of the original tune in the same key.
Here ya go: original in G major, then B phrygian transposition:
Code:
G D G D G
|---------|--------|-------|--------|---------|--------|--------|--
|-0-------|0-0-0---|-------|0-3-3---|-0-------|0-0-0---|----0---|---------
|---2-0-2-|--------|2-2-2--|--------|---2-0-2-|--------|2-2---2-|0-------
|---------|--------|-------|--------|---------|--------|--------|-----
|---------|--------|-------|--------|---------|--------|--------|----------
|---------|--------|-------|--------|---------|--------|--------|----------
Bm F#m7b5 Bm F#m7b5 Bm
|---------|--------|-------|--2-2---|---------|--------|--------|--
|-3-1-0-1-|3-3-3---|1-1-1--|3-------|-3-1-0-1-|3-3-3---|1-1-3-1-|0--------
|---------|--------|-------|--------|---------|--------|--------|--------
|---------|--------|-------|--------|---------|--------|--------|-----
|---------|--------|-------|--------|---------|--------|--------|----------
|---------|--------|-------|--------|---------|--------|--------|----------
That's "relative" phrygian mode.
A better comparison with the G major original might be to use "parallel" phrygian, ie G phrygian:
Code:
Gm Dm7b5 Gm Dm7b5 Gm
|---------|--------|-------|--------|---------|--------|--------|--
|---------|--------|-------|--3-3---|---------|--------|--------|-----
|-3-1-0-1-|3-3-3---|1-1-1--|3-------|-3-1-0-1-|3-3-3---|1-1-3-1-|0--------
|---------|--------|-------|--------|---------|--------|--------|-----
|---------|--------|-------|--------|---------|--------|--------|----------
|---------|--------|-------|--------|---------|--------|--------|----------

Originally Posted by
Rajjpuut
Would we expect the new result to sound like epic Spanish music?
Play them - what do you think?

Originally Posted by
Rajjpuut
What are the implications for ear musicians unschooled in theory who can't read sheet music, could they understand what was going on and "steal" my "new" tune?
Indeed, ethically, is it a "new" tune? Would I owe a recent Mozart, if he created it just yesteryear, a royalty check?
It's too old to be under copyright. Steal away...
You can try and copyright your new version if you want.

Originally Posted by
Rajjpuut
As far as your notation, would you just write "in the Phrygian Mode Andante Furioso" LOL or some other note?
Nope. Just write the notes.
For B phrygian, you could use a B minor key sig with accidentals for the C naturals, to make people aware this wasn't a plain G major tune (with an odd use of Bm).

Originally Posted by
Rajjpuut
Am I missing something of significance with this line of inquiry?
possibly...

Originally Posted by
Rajjpuut
Any other comments that you think should be made?
Depends how much the above answers your questions...